2015F CST8276 MIDTERM VERSION 2

1. Before the data retention period is exceeded flashback technology relies on ____.
	a. undo data and the recycle bin (correct)
	b. recycle bin and redo logs
	c. redo logs and archive logs 
	d. archive logs and undo data
	e. redo logs and undo data

2. The 80/20 rule (Pareto Principle) can be related to database performance by ____.
	a. applying the rule that 80% of results come from 20% of the effort
	b. spending time problem solving the most common and disruptive problems first
	c. spending 80% of the DBA's time maintaining the database and 20% enhancing it
	d. spending 80% of the DBA's time on planning and 20% on maintenance
	e. a and b (correct)

3. What is the primary cause of performance problems in database applications according to most experts?
	a. inadequate hardware support
	b. database failures
	c. system failures
	d. improperly coded applications (correct)
	e. poor backup strategies

4. The purpose of the Oracle performance method is to ____ and to aid in the development of efficient SQL statements.
	a. limit the overuse of memory
	b. increase I/O
	c. Eliminate bottlenecks (correct)
	d. Eliminate low-load SQL statements
	e. Promote Oracle's high performance reputation

5. What is the main reason to denormalize a physical data model?
	a. to enhance performance
	b. to decrease performance (correct)
	c. to match 3NF requirements
	d. to prepare for creation of a logical data model
	e. to create a well-designed database

6. Indexes should be used for efficient row selection and to ____.
	a. optimize space utilization
	b. improve join efficiency
	c. increase table scans
	d. reduce row chaining (correct)
	e. Reduce row migration

7 When is the best time to create indexes?
	a. during table creation
	b. before the data is loaded
	c. during the data loading
	d. after the data is loaded (correct)
	e. the first time the data is accessed

8. What is the benefit of clustering data?
	a. to place related data on separate disks for fast access
	b. to enhance vertical scalability
	c. to enhance horizontal scalability
	d. to reduce I/O and improve performance (correct)
	e. to increase I/O and improve performance

9. Why is it a problem to use information like hit ratios to drive database changes?
	a. Hit ratios show positive performance, miss ratios are problems
	b. Calculations could be faulty if the disk is damaged
	c. Hit ratios should be used to direct change 	
	d. Hit ratios should be used as indicators, not directives to change (correct)
	e. Hit ratios do not indicate database problems

10. The new Oracle 12c adaptive query optimization technique ____.
	a. Uses only existing plans created from gathering statistics
	b. Waits until execution time to make a final plan, using execution statistics (correct)
	c. Waits for the user to gather adaptive statistics and proceeds with execution
	d. Uses SQL dynamic plan directives to optimize poorly designed queries
	e. Uses automatic predicates to optimize poorly designed queries

11. What of the following is the most likely reason for a computer application programmer to be knowledgeable about database architecture and a DBA's responsibilities?
	a. To monitor performance of the database as a whole
	b. To understand the DBA role and better communicate with the DBA (correct)
	c. To install the DBMS
	d. To backup the DBMS
	e. To monitor user security

12. Which of the following would a DBA do in managing the DBMS?
	a. analyze system performance statistics
	b. investigate user complaints
	c. evaluate new DBMS product features
	d. tune DBMS product options to accommodate other software in use
	e. all of the above (correct)

13. Which of the following needs to be considered by a DBA who is making a decision on the appropriate DBMS for an organization?
	a. technical support within the organization
	b. business needs and corporate philosophy
	c. scalability
	d. cost
	e. all of the above (correct)

14. What would be the most likely reason why a DBA would set up test and production environments?
	a. the DBA may be nervous about transitioning data to production
	b. to reduce the risk of corrupting the production environment (correct)
	c. to test new users in the test environment before they are allowed to access the production environment.
	d. there is no reason to have both. Redundancy can lead to errors.
	e. data can be distributed to avoid bottlenecks

15. ____ is a strategy for staying current in the database field after graduation.
	a. Taking advantage of training opportunities
	b. Attending conferences
	c. Obtaining certification in database related areas
	d. Researching advances in the field
	e. All of the above (correct)

16. From the overview of this course and your research into Oracle certification, which of the following topics will be studied in this course?
	a. exploring Oracle architecture (correct)
	b. creating a database using DBCA
	c. configuring and managing the Oracle network
	d. manage AWR
	e. all of the above

17. What needs to be considered before installing Oracle on your laptop?
	a. hardware requirements (correct)
	b. your SQL skill level
	c. availability of a DBA
	d. concurrency
	e. all of the above

18. If an error occurs during installation, where is the first place the DBA should look to determine the cause?
	a. Alert log (correct)
	b. Redo log
	c. Undo log
	d. Database buffer cache
	e. Shared pool

19. Oracle multitenant is ____.
	a. a new architecture introduced with Oracle 12c
	b. used to consolidate databases in the cloud
	c. an architecture which uses PDBs and CDBs
	d. all of the above (correct)
	e. a and b only

20. Which of the following is an account name for which you are asked to enter a password during Oracle DBMS installation?
	a. SYSTEM
	b. SYS
	c.INTERNAL
	d. a and b (correct)
	e. a, b and c

21. Which of the following data dictionary prefixes allows user access by all users and shows objects owned by the user?
	a. ALL_
	b. DBA_
	c.USER_ (correct)
	d. P$_
	e. DP$

22. What is the result of the following SQL command?
Select pname from V$Process where Pname is not null;
	a. lists all user processes accessing the database
	b. lists all background processes running on your database. (correct)
	c. lists all operating system processes running on your computer
	d. lists all PGA processes running on your database
	e. none of the above

23. What will the value of Optimizer_mode be after the next startup if you issue these commands?
Alter system set optimizer_mode=all_rows scope=spfile
Alter system set optimizer_mode=rule scope=memory;
	a. all_rows (correct)
	b. rule
	c. first_rows
	d. no change, alter system cannot change the optimzer_mode parameter
	e. none of the above

24. Which of the following initialization parameters cannot be changed after creating the database?
	a. db_block_size (correct)
	b. db_name
	c. control_files
	d. sys_password
	e. None of the above. All parameters can be changed.

25. Which data dictionary view shows current values of parameters?
	a. V$DataDictionary
	b. V$Database
	c. V$SYSParm
	d. V$Parameter (correct)
	e. V$DD

26. Which component is not part of the Oracle instance?
	a. system global area
	b. background Processes
	c. shared Pool
	d. database Buffer Cache
	e. data file (correct)

27. Which of the following makes up an Oracle database instance?
	a. SGA and background processes (correct)
	b. SGA and database files
	c. data files and control files
	d. data files, control and redo log files
	e. physical files including the data files

28. Which of the following is true about shared servers?
	a. shared servers are typically used at installation to connect one user with its own server process.
	b. shared servers use dispatchers to distribute user process requests to one of several server processes (correct)
	c. shared servers send completed requests directly to the user process
	d. the SERVERS parameter configures the number of shared servers to start at instance startup
	e. the SERVERS parameter configures the number of dispatchers used by the shared servers

29. Which of the following shutdown procedures requires instance recovery?
	a. shutdown abort (correct)
	b. shutdown immediate
	c. shutdown transactional
	d. shutdown normal
	e. shutdown connection

30. Which of the following is a required part of the SGA?
	a. database buffer cache (correct)
	b. PMON
	c. large pool
	d. streams pool
	e. SMON

31. A component of the Shared Pool is the ____.
	a. Library cache (correct)
	b. DB_cache
	c. Large pool cache
	d. Java pool cache
	e. All of the above

32. Which background process guarantees that committed data is saved, even when changes have not been written to the datafiles?
	a. DBWn
	b. PMON
	c. LGWR (correct)
	d. SMON
	e. SGA

33. ____ are the logical layers of an Oracle database (from largest to smallest).
	a. tablespaces, segments, extents, blocks (correct)
	b. tablespaces, extents, segments, blocks
	c. blocks, extents, segments, tablespaces
	d. blocks, segments, extents, tablespaces
	e. datafiles, tablespaces, operating system blocks

34 ____ are part of the physical files associated with an Oracle database.
	a. datafiles
	b. control files
	c. redo log files
	d. all of the above (correct)
	e. none of the above

35. When a log switch occurs ____.
	a. LGWR automatically begins dumping its contents to an archive log file
	b. LGWR stops writing to a log group and begins writing to a new group (correct)
	c. LGWR stops writing until another log switch occurs
	d. LGWR begins to write to the second member of the current group
	e. LGWR signals the Alert log that a serious error has occurred.

36. What is true of redo log files?
	a. Redo logs contain changes to data(DML, DDL) (correct)
	b. Redo logs can always be used for full database recovery
	c. Redo logs contain only uncommitted data
	d. Redo log switches are always generated by the DBA
	e. All of the above

37. Which of the following statements is true?
	a. every database must have two redo log groups (correct)
	b. every database should have at least three datafiles
	c. every database must have at least three multiplexed redo log groups
	d. every database must have at least three control files
	e. every database must have two redo log members per group

38. A ____ file is an administrative file containing up-to-date information on the database structure, log files, checkpoints; critical file for opening the database.
	a. redo log
	b. datafile
	c. control (correct)
	d. tablespace
	e. archive

39. ____ is a new administrator login introduced in Oracle 12c to support RMAN.
	a. SYSDBA
	b. SYSASM
	c. SYSADM
	d. SYSBACKUP (correct)
	e. SYSRECOVERY

40. ____ is a useful technique for preventing SQL injection.
	a. Testing the content of string variables after the query is executed
	b. Considering the use of stored triggers to validate user input
	c. Analyzing input and rejecting anything that contains text
	d. Using static SQL were possible
	e. All of the above (correct)

41. A data breach is _____.
	a. authorized disclosure of information that compromises the security, confidentiality or integrity of PII
	b. unauthorized disclosure of information that compromises the security, confidentiality or integrity of PII (correct)
	c. unauthorized disclosure of information the compromises that security, confidentiality or integrity of BII
	d. authorized disclosure of information the compromises that security, confidentiality or integrity of AII
	e. unauthorized disclosure of information to the PITR

42. Oracle account passwords are case sensitive.
	a. True (correct)
	b. False

43. The act of revoking an object privilege ____.
	a. does not cascade
	b. cascades upwards to grantor
	c. cascades to only the first grantee
	d. cascades downwards to grantees (correct)
	e. cascades to users with foreign key table references

44. A(n) ____ is a collection of settings that limits the use of system resources and define use of passwords.
	a. privilege
	b. group
	c. profile (correct)
	d. role
	e. resources

45. Which of the following statements gives the user witwicky the ability to delete table tech.accounts?
	a. grant delete to witwicky;
	b. grant delete to witwicky on tech.accounts;
	c. grant delete table to witwicky;
	d. allow witwicky to delete table tech.accounts
	e. grant delete on tech.accounts to witwicky; (correct)

46. What is true of using roles in Oracle?
	a. the DBA can assign a role to a user using the alter user command (correct)
	b. the DBA can assign a role to a user using the create user command
	c. the user can enable or disable a role with the enable role command
	d. a role cannot have the same name as a user
	e. roles and profiles have the same function

47. Entity integrity is a constraint which requires that ____.
	a. each occurrence of an entity be uniquely identifiable from other entity occurrences
	b. a primary key be specified for each entity
	c. a primary key cannot be set to null
	d. all of the above (correct)
	e. a and b only

48. The ON DELETE ____ setting tells Oracle that when a parent row is deleted, all the related child rows are also deleted.
	a. defer
	b. purge
	c. cascade (correct)
	d. set null
	e. update

49. Referential integrity is a constraint that ____.
	a. Checks that a non-null primary key must exist
	b. Checks that a non-null foreign key must have a match in the parent table (correct)
	c. Checks that a non-null foreign key must have a match in the child table
	d. Automatically cascades deletes to the parent table 
	e. Refers to table references

50. The ____ constraint can be used to limit the range of values permitted for an attribute by enforcing a predefined list of values for a column.
	a. primary key and unique
	b. check (correct)
	c. foreign key
	d. referential
	e. index

51. ____ is a possible cost which can be attributed to database downtime.
	a. Lost business opportunities
	b. The cost of catching up after systems are restored
	c. The legal cost of lawsuits associated with data loss or lost time
	d. The impact of reduced stock value
	e. All of the above (correct)

52. Statistics show the most likely cause of database failure, resulting in unplanned downtime is ____ failure.
	a. data corruption
	b. storage
	c. site
	d. computer
	e. human (correct)

53. Which of the following is a typical example of a cause for planned downtime?
	a. human error such as recovering a table which was dropped unintentionally
	b. performance issues requiring rebuilding of indexes (correct)
	c. recovering from loss due to an earthquake
	d. recovering from loss due to disk drive failure
	e. recovering from loss due to malicious actions

54. ____ is an Oracle Database utility which performs backup and recovery activities.
	a. Data Guard
	b. RMAN (correct)
	c. SMON
	d. ASM
	e. RAC

55. In order, the steps to recovering a database after a failure are ____.
1 Determine what needs to be recovered
2 Restore the image copy backup(s)
3 Locate the required image copy backup(s)
4 Identify the type of failure
5 Roll forward through the database log(s)
	a. 1,2,3,4,5
	b. 1,4,3,2,5
	c. 3,4,5,1,2
	d. 4,3,2,1,5
	e. 4,1,3,2,5 (correct)

56. Which of the following is true of a "hot backup"?
	a. the database is online and active
	b. the result is not necessarily consistent across all files in the backup.
	c. it takes a snapshot of a database one file at a time.
	d. pieces of the backup are not necessarily recovered as a group to a working database
	e. all of the above (correct)

57. A remote site, located ____ should be considered when choosing a viable disaster recovery site.
	a. geographically far enough away from the primary site to avoid the natural disaster impacting the production site
	b. on a different power grid
	c. away	from the same floodplain
	d. away from the same earthquake fault line
	e. all of the above (correct)

58. For full recovery the database must be ____.
	a. replicated
	b. read-only
	c. non-volatile
	d. on standby
	e. archived (correct)

59. Which of the following is true about DBPITR?
	a. point-in time recovery is most often needed following an application or transaction error (correct)
	b. point-in-time recovery is most often needed following media failure damage to data files or control files
	c. backup(s) are restored along with redo log entries from redo logs and archived log files
	d. DBPITR is the same as flashback database
	e. the database must be opened with the clear logs options

60. What is true of the Undo tablespace?
	a. used in transaction recovery
	b. used for rolling back transactions
	c. provides read consistency
	d. used for flashback queries
	e. all of the above (correct)